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600 or so years ago it was conquered. So the question is pretty much the same as why is Catalonia part of Spain or any other of their regions.
Catalonia, a part of the old Kingdom of Aragón, was never conquered. It united with Castile by marriage, and formed the nucleus of modern Spain, like so many kingdoms in European history.
The whole "Catalonia is an oppressed invaded country" narrative is a political tool.
You can add a layer of depth that part of Spain is a British colony, so whem you takk to Spain about Ceuta, they talk about Gibraltar.
So it's a self-inflicted problem for keeping that conquered territory to this day?
Nope, you really can't argue that something that has been captures by the Portugese in 1415 and became Spanish due to royal unions in 1668 is not part of Spain. That's like declaring that New York belongs to the Netherlands or that the turkish conquest of Constantinopel is invalid and that some Byzantine empire has a claim on Istanbul. It totally doesn't make any sense after 600 years
I'm not arguing that. I'm arguing that because they insist on continuing their colonialism, their problems with migrants in Ceuta are entirely self-inflicted.
But what colonialism? There hasn't been anyone born in Ceuta who is not Spanish for like 15 generations.
It's like saying Austria should decolonise the Alps or something.
Exactly.
Also, I'm pretty sure we wouldn't be talking about this if Europe hadn't bled Africa dry for centuries.
Edit: Downvote me all you want, you know it's true