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The racistly named Spanish Flu evolved in WW1, and it has been speculated that selective pressures due to the war caused it to increase spreadability and lower incubation times. Wonder if this is a similar thing.
Since they are antibiotic resistant bacteria, I have the suspicion that this is related to an increased use in antibiotics due to war injuries. Probably made worse by shortages that make people unable to finish the full regime all the time.
That's what I suspect, also a fun fact is that one of the first recorded cases of the Spanish flu appeared at Fort Riley in Kansas.
The only reason why t'was called the "Spanish flu" in the first place, was because as a neutral nation in WW1, it had no reason to hide the news during wartime, but their national coverage ultimately associated them as the influenza place of origin.