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I mean it also just continuously inflates the price every transaction cycle because that cost gets baked into the loan.
So you are adding substantial inflation to home prices with that 3-6% if the average home is bought and sold ~10 years.
There's a broader concern to the American economy in discouraging labor mobility. There is a benefit to the country's economy in having a mobile labor force and high transaction costs discourage labor mobility.
It's one argument to have more people renting, as there's a lower cost to move for renters than owners.
A country benefits if workers are relatively able and willing to move to wherever demand for labor is. If there's an artificial barrier to such a move, then it makes it harder to connect workers and demand for labor; a worker would be artificially-inclined to work in a less-productive job that didn't require a move and it's harder for an employer who has some more-productive job to manage to get workers.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Labor_mobility
That being said, I understand that the American labor force has historically been relatively-mobile, though I recall reading that that has fallen off in recent decades (maybe it's due to the process of urbanization starting to wrap up in the fairly-developed US, as I'm sure that urbanization drives some labor mobility -- gotta move if one is to move to a city).
Can you explain this? I can't make sense of it. If it's a fixed rate, I don't see how it adds to the inflation of the home value.
If you buy a house for 100k, it has a 6k commission baked in the price, so the seller gets 94k. But that 94k only matters to that seller, you still need 100k to break even, plus another 6% to get into the green after your sale's commission. So your break even price is now 106,360. And your buyer's break even price will be 6% on top of that and so on.
Because it's a % of the price, it's exponential growth. If it was a fixed number, it would just be linear growth.