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[-] Vikthor@piefed.world 15 points 2 days ago

Depends on your definition of sorted out. The differences are obvious even now, 35 years later.

[-] Bogus007@lemmy.zip 2 points 2 days ago

Especially mentally.

[-] kraxla@piefed.social 1 points 2 days ago

Only the ddr and udssr is at fault there!

[-] john_t@piefed.ee 2 points 2 days ago

I meant on the EU level. I don't remember changing treaties, voting problems, vetoes...

[-] Ropianos@feddit.org 6 points 2 days ago

Because the EU didn't exist back then? Or am I missing something?

[-] john_t@piefed.ee 3 points 2 days ago

I'm sorry, you're absolutely right. There was in no way or shape an organization of countries in Europe back then. There was the European Economic Community, but that's not related with the EU at all, totally different countries.

I should have never used the term EU referring to a group of European countries in the 21st century that had absolutely nothing to do with the countries of the EEC.

Thank you for correcting me.

[-] idiomaddict@lemmy.world 3 points 2 days ago

Wasn’t the fall of the Berlin Wall and incorporation of the former East Germany into the EEC kind of what led to the Maastricht Treaty and the formation of the modern EU?

[-] Successful_Try543@feddit.org 3 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago)

Yes, afaIk it was France who insisted on a deeper European integration, e.g. the Euro as a unified currency, as a prerequisite for its consent to the German reunification.

this post was submitted on 25 Jun 2026
100 points (99.0% liked)

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