this post was submitted on 20 Nov 2023
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[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

You're so close to getting it - why is it not a fraction of 10, but a fraction of 100?

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Because base 60 was too useful for a bunch of French fuckwits couple hundred years ago

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

So we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10 because base 60 was too useful? How does that make any sense? The question wasn't why we use base 100 instead of base 60.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Not really knowledgeable bout history either, are you?

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Not really able to lead a conversation without non-sequiturs, are you?

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

It's not a non sequitur. You'd know that if you ever read a book.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

No, it's a full-on non-sequitur. As I said, the question wasn't why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 60, but why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10. What you're saying doesn't relate at all to my question.

But I'm done here, you're either arguing in incredibly bad faith, or you're not capable of understanding my questions. Either isn't something I'll spend more time on.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago

Just cause you don't understand doesn't make it a non-sequitur