this post was submitted on 20 Nov 2023
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[โ€“] [email protected] 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

No, it's a full-on non-sequitur. As I said, the question wasn't why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 60, but why we use fractions of 100 instead of fractions of 10. What you're saying doesn't relate at all to my question.

But I'm done here, you're either arguing in incredibly bad faith, or you're not capable of understanding my questions. Either isn't something I'll spend more time on.

[โ€“] [email protected] 1 points 11 months ago

Just cause you don't understand doesn't make it a non-sequitur