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submitted 15 hours ago by Tychoxii@hexbear.net to c/science@hexbear.net
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[-] KnilAdlez@hexbear.net 26 points 14 hours ago

It is my understanding that language was not as discrete as it is now until the invention of the printing press. It doesn't make a lot of sense to say there were some such amount of languages, because everyone spoke some regional dialect

[-] LeeeroooyJeeenkiiins@hexbear.net 8 points 9 hours ago* (last edited 9 hours ago)

There's also probably generally a lot more granularity and differences between regional dialects in periods where there wasn't the infrastructure or economic impetus for trade or travel. The printing press helps codify the written language and is vital for literacy outside of a privileged class but in terms of spoken language I think it's more of an exposure driven thing, where even if there are fundamental differences between languages in proximity the more trade and interaction the more loanwords and other things you'll see, plus the effects of a hegemonic culture establishing a lingua franca

sorry if this be incoherent, my adhd is medicated but my drunkenness is also at a medicated level

this post was submitted on 25 Jul 2026
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