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Gottem
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this post was submitted on 18 Feb 2026
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I don't get it. Why would they assume that? You're given a placebo pain reliever and it relieves pain. Then you're given a nalaxone, which you, the patient, knows blocks opioids. In both cases, it could just be the placebo effect. You could be given water and told it's nalaxone, and it could have the same effect.
Were they not told they were being given nalaxone? Were there four cohorts? Were some of the people who got placebo painkillers also given placebo nalaxone where it didn't block the pain relief?
I can't read the paywalled article.
Huh that article never used to be paywalled sorry, there is a way to use archive to read it but it's never worked for me.
Because the ones feeling the pain relief, that don't know if they got the real drugs or placebo, are given naloxone and the effect is reversed. So they had opiates in their system that were blocked, but were not given any, meaning their body released the endogenous ones.
https://archive.ph/20221218222515/https://www.newyorker.com/magazine/2011/12/12/the-power-of-nothing
Let me know if that doesn't work this is the first time I've actually done this, with a tool before I tried from archive and it never worked.
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