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It's closer to Venezuela being forced into an unequal treaty than any genuine colonial relationship. Qing China, despite suffering numerous unequal treaties from multiple imperialists, giving up far more than what Venezuela has given up, and being led by a thoroughly incompetent government, was merely semi-colonized. Qing China had to give up entire provinces (Xinjiang, Tibet, Taiwan) on top of cities (Hong Kong, Macau, Qingdao) as concessions.
The conflation between signing unequal treaties and colonization is even worse when you consider Japan, which also signed unequal treaties starting with the Convention of Kanagawa where the Tokugawa Shogunate was forced at gunpoint to open ships to US merchant ships (this is euphemistically described within US curriculum as Japan "opening up"). Yet, we also know that Japan would quickly become an imperialist power themselves starting with Luuchuu and Korea. It doesn't make sense for Japan to go from colonized to colonizer without decolonization. But Japan underwent no such decolonization where imperialists were booted from Japan. The way to make sense of it is to say that despite the unequal treaties, Japan was never colonized, which meant it didn't need undergo decolonization before becoming a colonizer themselves.
Japan was never colonized despite the unequal treaties.
China was only semi-colonized because despite having its territories be slowly annexed, it still had a government of limited sovereignty with a population that constantly waged war to expel the imperialists.
Korea was colonized, but it was colonized through Japanese invasion of Korea. The unequal treaties it had with Japan paved the way towards Japanese colonization, but the treaties in and of themselves weren't colonization.
Yeah, unequal treaty is a great way to frame it. Just classic Great Power politics. "The strong do what they will, the weak suffer what they must" hours. Been the same since Thucydides wrote that 2500 years ago. Not every tributary relationship is colonial.