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submitted 3 days ago by Ourst@lemmy.sdf.org to c/mop@quokk.au

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[-] Sanctus@anarchist.nexus 6 points 3 days ago

The Chinese Constitution has also played a role in shaping the country's land management laws. The Constitution recognizes the right of citizens to own and use land, and it prohibits the unauthorized seizure of land. The Constitution also recognizes the right of the state to regulate land use and to protect the public interest.

Thats wild because their constitution says otherwise.

[-] CubitOom@infosec.pub 1 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago)

You should read article 12 onward in Law of the People's Republic of China on the Administration of the Urban Real Estate

Article 20 and 22 is of specific interest here.

[-] Sanctus@anarchist.nexus 3 points 2 days ago

Article 20 Before the term for the use of land specified in the contract for granting the land-use right expires, the State is not to recover the land-use right obtained by the land user in accordance with the law. Under special circumstances as required by public interests, the State may, in accordance with legal procedures, recover the land-use right before the expiration of the term and shall make appropriate compensation based on the number of years of utilization and the actual development of the land by the land user.

Article 21 The land-use right shall be terminated with loss of the land.

Article 22 Where the term for the use of land specified in the contract for granting the land-use right expires, and the land user needs to continue the use of the land, the land user shall apply for an extension of the term no later than one year ahead of the expiration. Such an application shall be approved except for the land to be reclaimed as required by public interests. Upon approval of the extension, the land user shall enter into a new contract for the granting of the land-use right and pay fees for the granting in accordance with the relevant regulations.

Does this refute the 90% figure?

[-] CubitOom@infosec.pub 1 points 2 days ago

It depends I guess on how one defines the word "own".

In most of the world, a temporary land use grant (even if it is for 70 years) would not be ownership.

[-] Sanctus@anarchist.nexus 3 points 2 days ago

This is because you define home ownership as owning the land beneath it and ths defined it differently. Either way, thats a lot of housed people which is the point.

this post was submitted on 07 Feb 2026

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