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submitted 22 hours ago* (last edited 20 hours ago) by glimmer_twin@hexbear.net to c/askchapo@hexbear.net

Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think

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[-] red_giant@hexbear.net 3 points 8 hours ago

I think it looks like enclosing the commons and restricting peasant access to community wealth as the lords try to protect and increase their profits as their economic order approaches its natural conclusion.

this post was submitted on 04 Feb 2026
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