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submitted 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) by glimmer_twin@hexbear.net to c/askchapo@hexbear.net

Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think

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[-] SootySootySoot@hexbear.net 8 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago)

This is a very important point. Most people think of all society from tribes up to 1600CE as one big "it was basically all kings"/medieval/dark ages bloc. Very few people could actually tell you about the development through those various eras, such as the philosophies, societal movements and technologies developed, invented, and at play throughout those millennia (including myself, I know shit all).

To ask "what was feudalism in decay" is like asking "why is glass transparent"; It sounds simple, but you need to understand a whole bunch of other shit first for the answer to actually be meaningful.

this post was submitted on 04 Feb 2026
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