48
submitted 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago) by glimmer_twin@hexbear.net to c/askchapo@hexbear.net

Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[-] CitizensTyrant@hexbear.net 23 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago)

Keep in mind that that number could easily be exaggerated for dramatic effect as a deterrent for future ambitious peasants. Also, just because that particular event didn't lead to sudden change doesn't mean it ended the struggle. Eventually, feudalism did indeed come to an end.

That being said, millions die every year due to the depravity of capitalism. Yet, in the west, nobody bats an eye. we are still well insulated compared to the struggles in the global south. They have been fighting for decades already. The pace of change is quickening day by day.

[-] towhee@hexbear.net 10 points 2 days ago

I am not sure exactly what you are referring to here. Maoists in the Philippines?

[-] CitizensTyrant@hexbear.net 12 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago)

I mean...Just pick a country in the global south or even in eastern europe, yeah.

this post was submitted on 04 Feb 2026
48 points (100.0% liked)

askchapo

23218 readers
91 users here now

Ask Hexbear is the place to ask and answer ~~thought-provoking~~ questions.

Rules:

  1. Posts must ask a question.

  2. If the question asked is serious, answer seriously.

  3. Questions where you want to learn more about socialism are allowed, but questions in bad faith are not.

  4. Try !feedback@hexbear.net if you're having questions about regarding moderation, site policy, the site itself, development, volunteering or the mod team.

founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS