this post was submitted on 11 Apr 2024
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No Stupid Questions

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Used a couple of US recipes recently and most of the ingredients are in cups, or spoons, not by weight. This is a nightmare to convert. Do Americans not own scales or something? What's the reason for measuring everything by volume?

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[–] [email protected] 5 points 7 months ago (1 children)

Milk has a specific gravity slightly higher than 1, so that isn’t accurate.

In this context milk is a bad example because the difference between 1.03g/ml and 1g/ml is negligible in a kitchen. Even oil (0.92g/ml) is close enough.

This matters the most for stuff like below (with 1cup = 240ml):

  • honey: 340g/cup = 1.4g/ml
  • sugar: 200g/cup = 0.85g/ml [varies depending on granularity]
  • flour: 120g/cup = 0.5g/ml [sieved, and "properly" measured. It's a PITA to measure it by volume.]

Also, “cups” and “feet” aren’t arbitrary.

All units are arbitrary, be them metric or esoteric.

[–] HobbitFoot 4 points 7 months ago (1 children)

In this context milk is a bad example because the difference between 1.03g/ml and 1g/ml is negligible in a kitchen. Even oil (0.92g/ml) is close enough.

The context is that if you are going to hand wave away a 3% difference in a quantity, then having to weigh everything probably isn't important.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago (1 children)

The context [SIC - rationale] is that if you are going to hand wave away a 3% difference in a quantity, then having to weigh everything probably isn’t important.

That's poor reasoning; ignoring a tiny difference doesn't imply ignoring larger ones. Myself mentioned three cases where the difference matters, with one (flour) being highly variable.

A better argument to defend your point would be that most differences in the kitchen are tiny.

[–] HobbitFoot 1 points 7 months ago

I've been making that argument in other comments. If I had to argue the nuances of this argument in every comment, I'd be copying and pasting pages long comments that no one would read.