Well, I'm a bit confused on that too and it's weighin' on my conscience
Is it correct to understand that antisemitism itself is one possible manifestation of the logic of antisemitism and the logic should not be viewed as exclusive to Jewish people?
Yes...
Now on the first question, regarding their role in political economy, take my info with a grain of salt as I try my best to explain the origins of medieval judenhass:
The role of Jews in medieval political economy (taking England for an example) was to do the employment that Christians weren't specialized in, religiously forbidden to do, etc. due to the fact that Jews were originally outsiders, both in faith and foreign nature.
In this case, the initial role of merchant and the later role of moneylender seemed to define them, as they evolved to fit the necessary economic niches to be filled during those times. {not that they had much choice, since medieval society barred them from others}
Also, regarding England:
Nonetheless, they were kept as a necessary economic 'evil'
It was only when the contemporary rise of proper international banking from Italy competed with their role as moneylenders, that the European kingdoms in the 1300s finally started to exile the Jews, alongside the increasing local judenhass (often encouraged), which made the Jews economically obsolete in their political economy.
Well, since this is pro U.S gov't being opposed (Bongbong Marcos has actually welcomed more Amerikkkan military presence there), this is hopefully not a color revolution.