this post was submitted on 27 Oct 2023
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Isntreal, as a bourgeois settler nation has basically no proletariat to repress.
If fascism is simple [settler?] colonialism then it’s existed since 1492. I think it’s worth making some sort of distinction. There is no “scientific definition” but there is surely some distinction, like reviving imperial past and suppressing the proletariat (as discussed). I’m wondering whether the early Jewish god backed genocides in the Old Testament/Torah could be considered parallel to pre WWI Germany.