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[–] 7 points 3 years ago (2 children)

Does that "strict originalist" view extend to the "well regulated militia" part of the 2nd ammendment?

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  • [–] 5 points 3 years ago

    Yes, it does.

    The way the amendment reads is that the people must be armed in order to form militias to ensure the states stay free; it does not tie the requirement of arms to a militia.

    This is backed up by many statements by the founding fathers who state one of the core components to keeping America free from a tyrannical government is an armed citizenship willing to act, compared to Europe, where the citizenship is disarmed.

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