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submitted 14 hours ago* (last edited 14 hours ago) by NomNom@feddit.uk to c/dataisbeautiful@mander.xyz
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[-] Not_mikey@lemmy.dbzer0.com 13 points 11 hours ago

The graph is change in real prices that means inflation / cost of living adjusted. The anglophone countries would need to see equivalent real wage growth to make it just about salaries, which as far as I know they haven't.

[-] FishFace@piefed.social 1 points 1 hour ago

If only they taught you how to read graphs in school ://///

[-] WhatAmLemmy@lemmy.world 0 points 9 hours ago* (last edited 9 hours ago)

In statistics, making inferences and drawing conclusions from a limited number of variables is considered disingenuous (at best).

[-] FishFace@piefed.social 1 points 1 hour ago

Lol wtf does that mean? What would a set of variables that isn't "limited" even look like? What variables would you need to include to determine whether Anglophone countries had, indeed, built less housing and incurred greater price increases?

[-] SmoothOperator@lemmy.world 6 points 7 hours ago

The statement in the title of the graph is fully supported by the data shown. What inferences do you think have been made in error here?

this post was submitted on 20 Feb 2026
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