That makes sense, however wouldn't that simply be a form of class supremacy? Eugenics as a concept includes the practice of culling those groups deemed inferior and undeserving of propagation, which is why I'm saying that I'm not sure that that's the proper word in this situation. That's why racialized violence racial against minority populations is seen as ideological racial supremacy, yet isn't classified as eugenics unless additional measures such as sterilization, forced abortion, child separation, genocide, or other culling measures are used to whittle down the target population, as was seen in the United States with Black populations, and Nazi Germany with Jewish and disabled populations.

Sorry for the questions, this is a very pedantic line of inquiry over the application of a single word. I understand what you were trying to get across in your original message.