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this post was submitted on 10 Jul 2025
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MeanwhileOnGrad
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but the islamic revolution was in opposition to the US. Why do that to themselves?
They didn’t do the islamic revolution but they did do a coup 26 years earlier (for oil, of course) which installed the government that the islamic revolution was revolting against.
Edit: For more context these are some of the policies of the man the US overthrew (from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mohammad_Mosaddegh#Prime_Minister_of_Iran)
In March 1951, Mosaddegh nationalised the Anglo-Iranian Oil Company, cancelling its oil concession, which was otherwise set to expire in 1993, and expropriating its assets. Mosaddegh saw the AIOC as an arm of the British government controlling much of the oil in Iran, pushing him to seize what the British had built in Iran.[35] The next month, a committee of five majlis deputies was sent to Khuzistan to enforce the nationalisation.[36][37] Mosaddegh justified his nationalisation policy by claiming Iran was "the rightful owner..." of all the oil in Iran.
The islamic revolution is the iranian revolution.
Yes I was saying they as in America didn’t do the islamic/iranian revolution
oh okay. you just linked to the iranian revolution, so
Oh, my bad. I fixed the link