Anna_KOC

joined 3 years ago
 
 
[–] [email protected] 1 points 3 years ago (1 children)

Pretty strange to enact a blockade without also attacking, almost like they didn't really want to prosecute a war with Germany, at least not until they outlived their usefulness of destroying the USSR.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 3 years ago (3 children)

How do you explain the phoney war? that wasn't before hostilities

[–] [email protected] 1 points 3 years ago (5 children)

Before the battle of France they were at war with Germany With their forces in France but they refused to launch an offensive, see the Phoney War period, and Stalin was asking them to send forces to Poland before the war to contain Hitler, but they all refused. If the Germans had reached Moscow then they would no longer care about Britain as they would have more territory than they would know what to do with, leaving the door open for coexistence and by 44 the strategic importance of the Western front was fading, especially since they fucked up market garden too. Ofc it was good when they finally did it but they were double dealing.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 3 years ago (7 children)

They only did it once the nazis failed to take out the USSR for them and it was clear the red army would March to the Atlantic. The British had forces in France when they declared war over Poland but they refused to open a front, it was called the Phoney War, they were giving Hitler a free hand in the East to finish what the intervention after WWI failed to accomplish. The Western front was literally just right wing-infighting over what to do about the USSR and Stalin, the pace of industrialization scared the dogshit out of the West and they were afraid slavic subhumans would achieve equality with them.