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[-] Fizz@lemmy.nz 1 points 4 minutes ago

At no point. Crimes are relative to the legal system that rules over them. Without a legal system you are not committing crimes.

[-] Vandals_handle@lemmy.world 2 points 44 minutes ago
[-] wakko@lemmy.world 15 points 4 hours ago
[-] wreckedcarzz@lemmy.world 3 points 3 hours ago

Unfortunately

[-] schipelblorp@sh.itjust.works 7 points 4 hours ago* (last edited 4 hours ago)

At the point that it does.

For the United States: somewhere around 1857--charitably.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dred_Scott

[-] DandomRude@lemmy.world 6 points 4 hours ago

That was a long time ago—here in Germany, it was 1933 when Hitler enacted the so-called Enabling Act.

Nazi Germany was defeated in World War II, but U.S. billionaires made sure that their counterparts were never held accountable for their crimes.

That is why, in light of recent events, I ask

[-] schipelblorp@sh.itjust.works 4 points 3 hours ago

The United States has a long history of the using the legal system to enforce Jim Crow laws... but really, most of the injustice is just persistent bias at every stage of the judicial process--from being stopped by police, to being arrested by police, to be tried in court, to being sentenced. Black people are just stopped more, arrested more, tried more, convicted more, and sentenced to harsher punishments. There's no need to EXPLICITLY spell it out. Everyone just knows to do their job to enforce white supremacy within the letter of the law.

That said, there are definitely some laws to help along the police state oppression: civil forfeiture, qualified immunity, lower civil rights protections in "high crime areas" (read: black neighborhoods).

The way you ask your question, though, it makes it sound like you're asking when the justice system gives its EXPLCIT BLESSING to injustice, as opposed to just ALLOWING it to happen. I think that's much rarer.

[-] DandomRude@lemmy.world 4 points 3 hours ago

I can’t understand how you can still believe you’re living in a functioning constitutional state.

Everything you say is completely refuted by the Epstein case alone.

I can’t understand how anyone can be so blind.

As I said, in Germany, massive violence was necessary to bring about Nazi rule.

In the U.S., that doesn’t even seem to be necessary, because its citizens apparently view blatant injustice as the norm.

The point at which the U.S. legal system endorses absolute injustice has long since been reached. Even the Supreme Court agrees.

[-] schipelblorp@sh.itjust.works 3 points 3 hours ago

I think you are misunderstanding me. I agree with you, but i'm differentiating between the justice system explicitly legalizing criminality and the justice procedurally ignoring it. Dredd Scott is an example of the former, Epstein is an example of the latter.

I know exactly where my passport is.

[-] DandomRude@lemmy.world 1 points 2 hours ago

Does it make a difference?

Injustice remains injustice, even if those in power declare it to be just. However, if they ignore the law and no one holds them accountable, there can be no hope for improvement, because that is only possible in a state where the law no longer matters.

What interests me is when this happened. It was apparently a gradual transition, unlike in Nazi Germany, where the law was explicitly changed to justify inhumanity.

The U.S. Nazis thus seem to be pursuing a different strategy to seize absolute power—a strategy that U.S. citizens are evidently enabling them to carry out because what they do is blatantly illegal, but the law is not enforced.

[-] Lumidaub@feddit.org 6 points 4 hours ago* (last edited 2 hours ago)

At what point does a question become too broad and cryptic to answer?

[-] DandomRude@lemmy.world 4 points 3 hours ago

If you think there’s something cryptic about this, it explains to me how what’s happening in the U.S. is possible.

I’m from Germany, the country where the Nazis ruled from 1933 to 1945. Everything they did was, at least in hindsight, covered by the law.

The difference from the U.S. today, however, is that the Nazis in Germany were only able to put their degenerate ideology into practice after they seized absolute power. They didn’t do that until 1933—and even then, they maintained the appearance of legality and enshrined their inhuman ideology in law.

The U.S., however, claims to be a democracy, a constitutional state, and yet it is detaining tens of thousands of people—just as the Nazis were only able to do once they had murdered hundreds of thousands of their political opponents.

That is what my question refers to.

To put it another way: When will U.S. citizens realize that their legal system primarily serves to oppress them?

[-] schipelblorp@sh.itjust.works 4 points 3 hours ago

I've seen this coming from the Bush 2 administration. So have a lot of other people. The parallels between Weimar Germany and the United States are blatantly obvious to anyone who knows both, which is probably more Germans than Americans.

[-] Goldholz@lemmy.blahaj.zone 1 points 20 minutes ago

Cant be that many of us germans because ⅓ votes for nazis AGAIN!!

[-] Lumidaub@feddit.org 4 points 3 hours ago* (last edited 3 hours ago)

Fellow German, don't cite the deep magic to me.

"When will people realise what is happening" is a very different question from "when will it happen".

Edit: lol fucked up the quote.

[-] Goldholz@lemmy.blahaj.zone 1 points 18 minutes ago

"But we didnt know of nothing!" They said after smelling human flesh while living around dachau, after seeing their neighbors been taken away, after using them themself to do field works or factory work. After seeing them be marched threw the streets to their slave labors.

And they'll say it again over and over until the end of time. Until all of humanity finally understood that you cant eat money, nore take it with you into death

[-] Zwuzelmaus@feddit.org 2 points 4 hours ago* (last edited 4 hours ago)

You are essentially asking, what is the "Rule of Law"?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rule_of_law

This concept is sometimes stated simply as "no one is above the law" or "all are equal before the law".

[-] DandomRude@lemmy.world 1 points 4 hours ago

The quote you've taken from this article could hardly be more inappropriate, since it bears no resemblance to reality—in either version.

[-] Zwuzelmaus@feddit.org 2 points 3 hours ago

reality—in either version.

What do you mean with that? You have asked an abstract question, not any specific real situation.

[-] DandomRude@lemmy.world 2 points 3 hours ago

It was a very specific question. You’re the one turning it into an abstraction.

I can give a very specific answer to that, since I’m from Germany: In Germany in 1933, the Nazis used the legal system to give their inhuman crimes a veneer of legality. The reason for this was their absolute and extremely violent seizure of political power. They even retroactively legalized murders—including those of their own henchmen, such as Ernst Röhm, and many of their own party members.

Millions upon millions were murdered by the Nazis—and all of this was sanctioned by the legal system of that monstrous state.

This did not end until 1945 with the Allies’ victory over Nazi Germany.

However, a victory was evidently not achieved, for today in Israel and the U.S., hundreds of thousands of people are being held in concentration camps that are hardly any different from those of the Nazis.

this post was submitted on 14 Aug 2026
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