submitted 6 months ago by over_clox@lemmy.world to c/programming_horror@programming.dev

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[-] FiniteBanjo@feddit.online 3 points 6 months ago

Isn't that just a take on the Leibniz series for pi?

[-] over_clox@lemmy.world 3 points 6 months ago

Probably.

But every time I look at the formula/solution, I see a different way to do it...

this post was submitted on 31 Jan 2026

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