Every time I read a passage from Sakai I think:
- A good chunk of this is insightful material that is not common elsewhere and seems hard to contest (the U.S. has no feudal or communal past, and a major reason for its founding was to continue the oppression of indigenous and enslaved peoples).
- Another good chunk is a lot more contestable, certainly if the argument is that the U.S. is unique among capitalist states (all classes and strata have a preoccupation with petty privileges and property, moreso than other capitalist societies).
- A third chunk that seems like a huge stretch (there is no U.S. proletariat).
The support for the latter two groups has struck me as thin and/or unconvincing.
For example, the "no (white) proletariat" argument seems to boil to down to "they are paid too well to be proles." ArcanePotato cites a passage elsewhere in this thread stating that 18th- or 19th-century U.S. farm workers made more than their European peers, and there's also a passage in Settlers with figures on how many white households in the U.S. in the 1980s had a variety of modern conveniences (refrigerators, TVs, cars, etc.). I think this ignores that class is traditionally thought of as based more on one's relationship to the means of production than to any absolute level of wealth -- exchanging your labor for wages is what makes you proletariat, even if you make more than the person working next to you. If you're working a wage labor job and your wage doubles, your interest in class struggle may become less urgent, but your relationship to the means of production doesn't change. Temporarily placating the proletariat through higher wages isn't the same as the proletariat not existing.