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[–] 10 points 1 day ago (4 children)

"I will give you money if you vote for me"

Is different from

"I will give everyone money if I win"

The first is paying someone to vote and is outlawed by the law you cited. The second has a disconnect between the money and the vote. Everyone gets the money, even those that voted for the other guy. Thus it might be legal.

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  • [–] 2 points 21 hours ago (1 child)

    Whoever makes or offers to make an expenditure to any person, either to vote or withhold his vote, or to vote for or against any candidate;

    "I will give everyone money if I win" is offering money to people for voting. Voting for the candidate is implied, yes, but offering to pay everyone is still offering money to people for voting.

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  • [–] 1 point 9 hours ago

    In the description of the law, how is that meaningfully different from promising tax policy changes?

    It's not telling people to vote, not vote, or to vote for anyone in particular, and is just a notification of something they'll do if elected.
    The implication is that you should vote for them, but you didn't make the offer conditional.

    Bribery is easier if you're using other people's money because rather than paying people to do what you want you can make a blanket promise to everyone and let them work through the implications.

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  • [–] 2 points 1 day ago

    Oh I'm REALLY playing devil's advocate on this one

    Promising everyone, no exceptions, 5k if you win, is kind of a campaign promise rather than a bribe.

    I'm going to shower for 2 hours to get the stench off me now

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