It occurred to me after seeing a video about England's low GDP per capita, that Income per capita is the amount workers receive (before taxes), so the difference I think, is the amount taken by companies as profit. Am I missing something? Seems right to me
I doubt it's exactly that simple, because the GDP is the sum of monetary values of all transactions in a region/country. The most important aspect is probably that a company's costs are not subtracted from the GDP. And there's of course more costs than just the workers' salaries: materials, insurance, property taxes, sales taxes just to name a few.