about a page saying “other rules may have been adopted” suggests anything others than that different rules may have been adopted?

says person revealing they haven't read about the history behind that comment 🙄

You know by know that no-one but you agrees with your interpretations.

All the textbooks agree dude, which you would know if you had read more, but you've chosen to remain an ignorant gaslighter

You can’t find a single explicit agreement with them

With what?

Reposting the same pages that you are misinterpreting is very silly, isn’t it

says person who can't post anything that agrees with their silly interpretation 🤣🤣🤣

And yet you were unable to reply with a proof. So sad.

That’s some awful impressive goalpost shifting

BWAHAHAHAHAHAHA! Says person refusing to acknowledge that it's in textbooks the difference between conventions and rules 🤣🤣🤣

Gold medal mental gymnastics winner

Yep, I know you are. That's why you had to post known to be wrong blogs, because you couldn't find any textbooks that agree with you 🤣🤣🤣

And here you are, still unable to explain why prefix and postfix notation don’t have an operator precedence.

Speaking of goalpost shifting - what happened to they don't have rules?? THAT was your point before, and now you have moved the goalposts when I pointed out that the blog was wrong 🤣🤣🤣

I’m still waiting

says person who has still not posted any textbook at all with anything at all that agrees with them, to someone who has posted multiple textbooks that prove you are wrong, and now you are deflecting 🤣🤣🤣🤣

They literally don’t

they literally *do., That's why the rules get mentioned once at the start of the blog - it's the same rules duuuhhh!!! 🤣🤣🤣

I defy you to show me a single source that tells you that prefix or postfix notation use PEDMAS.

PEMDAS isn't the rules, it's a convention

I’ll even take Quora answers

I won't take anything but textbooks, and you've still come up with none

I’ll even take a reputable source talking about prefix/postfix that doesnt bring up how order of operations isn’t required for those notations.

That's exactly what the blog you posted does. I knew you hadn't read it! BWAHAHAHAHAHAHAHA! 🤣🤣🤣 I'll take that as an admission of being wrong then

No, you’ve show a screenshot from a random PDF

of a Maths textbook, with the name of the textbook in the top left, and the page number also in the top left. 🤣🤣🤣

Infix notation needs extra information to make the order of evaluation of the operators clear:

rules built into the language about operator precedence and associativity

Yep, says nothing about operator precedence being tied to the notation, exactly as I just said, so that's a fail from you then

But then you go on to say something to the effect of “anyone who knows the rules can the extra information”

derive the rules is what I said liar. The only thing you need to know is the definition of the operators, everything else follows logically from there.

Which is both unsubstantiated given the long history of not having PEDMAS

The order of operations rules are way older than PEMDAS. It even says it in one of the blogs you posted that PEMDAS is quite recent, again showing you didn't actually read any of it. 🙄

No, you’ve show a screenshot from a random PDF

Nothing random about it. The name of the textbook is in the top left. Go ahead and search for it and let me know what you find. I'll wait 🤣🤣🤣

What math textbook and what edition is it?

So, you're telling me you don't know how to look at the name of the PDF and search for it?? 🤣🤣🤣 I can tell you now it's the #1 hit on Google

The fact you think that factorization has to do with order of operations is shocking

says person revealing they don't know anything about order of operations 🤣🤣🤣 Make sure you let all the textbook authors know as well 🤣🤣🤣

Yes the multiplication is done first

No, Brackets are done first.

The law is about converting between a sum of a common product and a product of sums

Nope. That's the Distributive Property, and yes indeed, the Property has nothing to do with order of operations, but the Distributive Law has everything to do with order of operations.

No matter how you write them, it will always be about those things,

The Property will, the Law isn't

so the multiplication always happens first.

No, Brackets are always done first

It’s crazy that you’re not able to distinguish between mathematical concepts and the notation we use to describe them

says person who doesn't even know the difference between a Property and a Law, and, as far as I can tell, have never even heard of The Distributive Law, given they keep talking about the Property

But putting that aside, that’s not a proof of PEDMAS.

Right, it's a proof of the order of operations rules for Brackets 🙄

If PEDMAS is an actual law

It isn't, it's a convention

There are proofs for 1+1

It's true by definition. There's nothing complex about it. Just like ab=(axb) is true by definition

if PEDMAS is a law

It isn't, it's a convention. Not sure how many times you need to be told that 🙄

or an textbook snippet

You mean like textbook snippets stating that The Distributive Law is the reverse operation to Factorising?? See above 🤣🤣🤣