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This is a question that's great at getting theological arguments going. So to start with, we're going to be ignoring religions and cultures not dominated by abrahamic religions because Hinduism split from mesopotamian religions in a very different way than Judaism and religions not associated with or influenced by the the mesopotamian civilization start are wildly different and I don't know shit about them.
So, archeologically, evidence points to the Abrahamic God forming out of two or so male gods from mesopotamia and what began as a group devoting to that god eventually developed into a monotheistic religion. It looks like this may have been a storm god in competition with Baal, but as his religion developed he became androgynous but maintained he/him pronouns.
Theologically: hoo fucking boy that's a fight right there. Neopagans and Mormons are in agreement that it's because he's a manifestation of the divine masculine and that there exists a divine feminine counterpart. Catholics (and to my knowledge jews though I've met some who agree with the neopagans and mormons) say that it's tradition to address him in the masculine but he's genderless. Some protestants will argue that he's male and that men were created in his image and women less so. Other protestants agree with the Catholics. Others will say that the holy spirit is the divine feminine. And I'm sure many other interpretations exist.