this post was submitted on 08 Dec 2024
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It's not close to 100%, it is by formal definition 100%. It's a calculus thing, when there's a y value that depends on an x value. And y approaches 1 when x approaches infinity, then y = 1 when x = infinite.
it is not
you weren't paying attention in your calculus.
y is never 1, because x is never infinite. if you could reach the infinity, it wouldn't be infinity.
for any n within the function's domain: abs(value of y in n minus limit of y) is number bigger than zero. that is the definition of the limit. brush up on your definitions 😆
Except, that's in the real world of physics. In this mathematical/philosophical hypothetical metaphysical scenario, x is infinite. Thus the probability is 1. It doesn't just approach infinite, it is infinite.
oh boy, no. if anything, it would be the other way around. in real world calculations, you can sometime approximate and still get reasonably precise result, or boundary, depending on your needs. not so in math.
hence the jokes like "for mathematician, pi as a pi. for physicist, pi is roughly 3,14, for civil engineer, pi is roughly 3."
it is not.
x is not infinite. x is a variable, that is to be substituted by specific number. infinity is not a number, it is a concept that express the fact that you explore how the function behaves when you are substituting bigger and bigger numbers. but none of these numbers are "infinity". it is always specific number and the result never reaches the limit of the function. in this case, it is never 1, no matter how big number you substitute.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limit_of_a_function