Sorry, I thought your question was asked in good faith. I'm commenting because the claim that Shakespeare used singular they to refer to a known, specific individual is factually incorrect. I don't know the entire history of singular they, but I do have access to wikipedia just like you. It says 'In the early 21st century, use of singular they with known individuals emerged for people who do not identify as male or female, as in, for example, "This is my friend, Jay. I met them at work."' Does that answer your question?
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