You can’t just say that they are different without pointing out how they are materially different

I have pointed out how they're different, from my first comment to my last.

Theft involves taking a tangible asset from someone. It may also involve a potential loss in income.

Copyright infringement only involves the potential loss in income.

Your claim is that the producer has lost out with copyright infringement because of the time and effort and cost they put into making that thing. That cost would happen regardless of copyright infringement occurring. Thus you cannot assign the potential loss against the cost - it would have occurred either way.

If someone consumes that media then it is a real, tangible loss.

No, it isn't.

They consumed the media without paying for it.

Yes, they did.

The idea that they may not have paid for it anyways is unresolvable with the idea that, if they hadn’t paid for it and piracy wasn’t an option, then they wouldn’t have been able to consume that media.

Sure. But what you're ignoring is the idea of whether or not they would have bought instead of pirating.

If they would have paid, and didn't because they pirated, then there was a loss. If the wouldn't have paid but only consumed the material because it was free, then there is no loss. Thus, the loss is only potential.

The reality is that most of the content people pirate is not content they would have paid for, even if piracy was not an option. Thus, for the most part, piracy does not indicate any tangible loss.