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[–] 3 points 2 years ago (12 children)

Take an English class, I'm sure YouTube has a good video explaining it (basically there are different "degrees" of past tense, did / had done etc.)

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  • [+] -9 points 2 years ago (11 children)

    It's still not implicit just because you inferred it.

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  • [–] 3 points 2 years ago (6 children)

    Well the word "before" doesn't need to implicit. The "had" in I'd is more than enough past for the sentence to make sense

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  • [–] -4 points 2 years ago (5 children)

    No, that simply indicated that they had not done the thing, i.e. at all.

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  • [–] 1 point 2 years ago (4 children)
  • [–] -1 points 2 years ago (3 children)

    No, they never said "before."

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  • [–] 0 points 2 years ago* (2 children)

    For someone who only posts insulting others and correcting (incorrectly a bunch too….) their grammar, you sure lack any amount of reading comprehension.

    Its always the loudest people who are the most guilty, I appreciate the lengths you go to prove this is still true.

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  • [–] 1 point 2 years ago (1 child)

    @SpaceNoodle@lemmy.world I see a lot of toxic behaviour from you here and I will be keeping a closer eye on you in the future.

    As you @schmidtster@lemmy.world try not to bring disputes started in other comment chains into this one.

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  • [–] 1 point 2 years ago*

    I’ve tried just reporting them before. Doesn’t seem to do anything, so sorry for having to point it out. See this person all over Lemmy in lots of communities.

    And just had an interaction yesterday, so had to see what was new with them. Again, my apologies for bringing this to your attention, wasn’t bringing an argument in.

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  • [–] 1 point 2 years ago (3 children)

    In the English language, an action I "had done" is before an action I "did." It's a grammatical case, not an inference.

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  • [–] -2 points 2 years ago (2 children)

    He stated that he had not done it, not that he had not done it before.

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