I don't get how making sexual difference equal does anything other than make sexual difference disappear. When half the population is shorter because of sexual difference, and also paid less due to structural discrimination on the basis of gender/sex, making those differences equal makes the actual causes disappear. I just don't get it. I have no background in labs or experimentation so sorry if I'm being dense.
Marx flattens some differences in order to illustrate class distinctions and disappear certain confusing elements before working them in later, but he explains why and how, and what effect this will have.
But how would you do this with sex, when the thing you are measuring, height and pay, are both directly related, either physiologically or socially? I couldn't find the link to the study or more info, and the fact this is in Forbes makes my
register a beep