I know it doesn’t ‘cause’ it, per se, but it’s still a ‘factor’ (or can be, rather) yet it seems some disagree with that description.

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[–] 27 points 6 days ago (1 child)

Is it ‘misleading’ to say that consuming sugar can lead to type 2 diabetes?

I think it’s misleading as stated. At a minimum “excess consumption of sugar can lead to diabetes” would be somewhat more reasonable.

In isolation it implies a more direct connection between the two when the reality is other factors are much higher indicators such as genetics, excess body weight, and physical inactivity.

So in a list of those factors it’s more reasonable than as a standalone statement, but then when excess consumption of anything, along with physical inactivity, is going to lead to excess body weight, it seems a little redundant.

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  • [–] 2 points 6 days ago* (last edited 6 days ago)

    Now I wonder what caused someone to downvote this...

    Yes, in any statement "can lead to" does a lot of heavy lifting. There's a big leap between "I added a grain of fructose to my tea last month" to "I added a grain of rice to my HFCS brother this meal too"

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