So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn't take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It's not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?

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[–] 3 points 2 months ago* (9 children)

being the basis of almost every language there,

That is simply not true.

Only for these 6 you can call it the basis: Italian, French, Spanish, Portugese, Romanian, Moldovan. It has also influenced English a lot.

That makes 280 mill people in Europe having one of these as their native language.

And then there are about 435 mill people in Europe who have one of the 35 other European languages as their native language.

(Data source: Google AI)

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  • [–] 8 points 2 months ago

    There are other (minor) Romance languages, like Provencal, Catalan and then the various Italian languages like Venetian, but most speakers of these also speak one of the six big ones so the overall number shouldn't change much.

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  • [–] 3 points 2 months ago (2 children)

    Any of us can ask AI and throw slop into a conversation. If you don't have anything substantive to add maybe read and learn.

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  • [–] [S] 2 points 2 months ago* (3 children)

    Cmon man that is such a needless nitpick, especially as I had the qualifier "almost" in there. Also; booo AI, booo!

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  • [–] 5 points 2 months ago* (2 children)

    ok, so "almost" all americans have an IQ below their president? 😅

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