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[–] 5 points 1 year ago (2 children)

A legal order must be served and authorized by the courts. A legislator has no means to do this without a subpoena.

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  • [–] 1 point 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 child)

    What? No it doesn't - the courts can rule on a subpoena once given out, but congress absolutely can issue them itself without certification from the courts. (edit: I'm actually unclear about this requirement, it's quite possible you're correct in that the courts must endorse an issued congressional subpoena) That's a cornerstone of the separation of powers.

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