It occurred to me after seeing a video about England's low GDP per capita, that Income per capita is the amount workers receive (before taxes), so the difference I think, is the amount taken by companies as profit. Am I missing something? Seems right to me
Yeah i guess you're right, if you look at it like that it probably is accounting for most reinvestment of profit in a given business because they would have to spend that on something. My gut feeling tells me it can't be that simple but I have no evidence to suggest why it isn't, I'm also an engineer not an economist.