that empiricism doesn't apply to language
The fact that you don't understand how badly you're misusing those terms instead of talking about prescriptivism and descriptivism is what shows how little you know.
It's not "empicisim" you dolt, which you'd know if you had any understanding of the subject.
Now you're trying to use the terms, but fail hard.
I never even argued there's even a single prescriptive rule, and I never would, because unlike you, this isn't the first time I'm hearing the terms and I thus don't make prescriptive arguments. You can look at my comment, it's not been edited.
Point out a single prescriptive rule I even remotely imply. Oh there isn't one?
How odd.

