Heh (sh.itjust.works)
submitted 2 years ago by to c/memes@lemmy.ml
 
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[–] 29 points 2 years ago (9 children)

If you have two charges q1 and q2, you can get the force between them F by multiplying them with the coulomb constant K (approximately 9 × 10^9) and then dividing that by the distance between them squared r^2.

q1 and q2 cannot be negative. Sometimes you'll not be given a charge, and instead the problem will tell you that you have a proton or electron, both of them have the same charge (1.6 × 10^-19 C), but electrons have a negative charge.

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  • [–] 20 points 2 years ago (8 children)

    q1 and q2 can be negative. The force is the same as if they were positive because -1 x -1 = 1

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  • [–] 4 points 2 years ago (5 children)

    In this case yes, but if q1 was -20μC, q2 was 30μC, and r was 0.5m, then using -20μC as it is would make F equal to -21.6N which is just 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges.

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  • [–] 5 points 2 years ago (4 children)

    If they are oppositely charged particles, I would expect that there is a force of attraction acting on them, yes.

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  • [–] 1 point 2 years ago (3 children)

    I am not saying that's wrong, just that there's 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges not -21.6N.

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  • [–] 2 points 2 years ago (2 children)

    But those are the same thing.

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