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[–] 1 point 3 days ago (3 children)

Why is it an obvious simplification?

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  • [–] 4 points 3 days ago* (2 children)

    The post is complaining that the counter movement #notallmen is obviously right, and also that it's a trite counter argument to what is assumedly (and commonly) a claim of "all men X".

    They are arguing that "All men X" should obviously not be taken as literally "all men", but as a shorthand for "systemically enough men that the behaviour continues to exist so that almost 30% of men will do X at some point in their life".

    And that anyone saying "well, not all men" just isn't listening.

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