In practice this was rarely the case. Men were generally not stoned for rape or adultery.
Everywhere, in every place that used that verse as a way to condemn adultery? Because that is a very broad statement to make about thousands of years and dozens of cultures. I'm sure it wasn't consistently applied everywhere all the time, but to look at this as a legal code strictly analogous to modern law only and not a religious/moral code is a mistake IMO. You might be able to fool a judge or bribe a good ol' boy, but you can't fool God (which is what that would amount to for believers, who constituted the majority of people throughout history). The way that American conservatives use religion without really believing anything in it is an aberration throughout most of human history.