why (lemmy.dbzer0.com)
submitted 9 months ago by to c/memes@sopuli.xyz
 
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] 6 points 9 months ago (3 children)

Well it works for this example, because lave-vaisselle is feminine. The root vasselle (dishes) is feminine.

  • source
  • parent
  • hideshow 3 child comments
  • [–] 11 points 9 months ago*

    vaiselle is actually inhereting its gender in an unrelated manner.

    It comes from Latin vāscellum which is a Neuter noun.

    But the specific form that gave rise to vaiselle was the collective plural of that noun vāscella. source

    And it’s a common pattern that in vulgar latin, (what gave rise to french), collective plural nouns were interpreted as feminine. I think this is a general tendency and unrelated to the noun’s meaning. The reason often given is that neuter plural endings and feminine singular endings were the same in Latin.

    BTW; this is also the latin root of the english word vessel.

    (PS: I agree with you that gender in language is problematic and I prefer non gendered as well).

  • source
  • parent